Question Please?
kbisles 
11-27-2008, 4:25 AM | Post #2598860 |  4 Replies

Bought diamonds (DIA) in following sequence:

10/8 100 sh @94

10/10 50 sh @82

10/17 50 sh @89

11/12 50 sh@83

As long as I select from above and sell for gains, it would not be a wash sale. Am I right with my thinking. For example, if I sold 50 shares on 11/26 for 87 and used my cost basis of 85 on 11/12, I would be ok. Thanks for your response-kbi

4 Replies
Re: Question Please?
11-27-2008, 4:31 AM | Post #2598861
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Sorry, but it should be cost basis of 83 instead of 85, Thanks-kbi
Re: Question Please?
11-28-2008, 6:51 AM | Post #2599055
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Well..

1. BTHOM,,but makes sense.. but nothing does in this business

2.Maybe ask the Stock boys at >

M* Hands On Board

Ultimate Stock-Picker's Board

 

Re: Question Please?
12-01-2008, 10:36 PM | Post #2600135
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 I think you are right. Wash sales are losses only with rebuys within 30 days.
Re: Question Please?
12-01-2008, 11:09 PM | Post #2600143
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as long as its a GAIN no wash....If its a LOSS then the only penalty will occur when you sell the one that falls in the wash sale rule. Dont forget to factor in the broker expenses.